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T O P I C R E V I E W
Tolate01
Posted - 02 June 2008 : 22:44:01 Hi
My wife before we were married ownned her own house ( No mortgage) We have been married 4 years I have been paying all living costs but nothing to upkeep or improve the house.
Apart from being married we have no financial connection at all.
when I go bankrupt and the OR deems a beneficial interest , how much I dont know . But lets assume the house was worth 200k when we got married and is now worth 250k. if my wife does not have the cash, to pay what is deemed to be the beneficial interest, can the OR make her sell her house.
Thank you for your help.
1 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First)
JulianDonnelly
Posted - 03 June 2008 : 11:45:42 Hi Tolate01,
As you've been paying all the living costs, the OR can deem it that you do have a beneficial interest in the home (albeit a very small percentage). It is unlikely they'll go for a forced sale, but you may have to come up with a lump sum "nuisance" payment to make them go away!
