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T O P I C R E V I E W
Julia.dn
Posted - 10 August 2012 : 15:51:48 In 2009 my ex was visited by the inland revenue with a bill for tax arrears totalling £20,000. He had just received an inheritence for that amount and gave it to the taxman. He was a sole trader and went bankrupt in 1997 and did not start trading again until 2001. However he has just examined the statement they gave him and at least £13,000 of this includes arrears from before the bankrupcy and during the 4 years not trading. He was very foolish not to realise this at the time but is it too late to question it now as he is on the verge of bankrupcy again?
3 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First)
Julia.dn
Posted - 10 August 2012 : 16:30:53 My question is not about his recent arrears but those they claimed pre his last bankrupcy and the following 4 years when he was not trading and is it too late to question it now 3 years since he paid the debt?
quote:Originally posted by debtinfo
I would question it, the amounts that were pre his bankruptcy and will be written off by it (im asuming that the inheritence is from someone that died recently), so the only amounts owing are from that point onwards
debtinfo
Posted - 10 August 2012 : 16:24:48 I would question it, the amounts that were pre his bankruptcy and will be written off by it (im asuming that the inheritence is from someone that died recently), so the only amounts owing are from that point onwards
Niobe
Posted - 10 August 2012 : 16:21:35 Hi, no idea on this one.
Hopefully one of the experts will be along to advise.