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T O P I C R E V I E W
Angela.y
Posted - 14 October 2012 : 06:55:11 My husband and I used to save each month by buying shares in the company he worked for. This was a scheme offered by his employer which allowed him to buy shares tax free out of his salary and put them in trust for 5 years. This obviously resulted in reduced take home pay and meant that I contributed more to the household expenditure to allow us to make those savings. We always regarded these as joint savings !! However when my husband was made bankrupt the receiver took all these shares and sold them against the debt. He said that since they were thru a company scheme and they were in my husbands name only, I had no claim on the asset... Is this correct ?
1 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First)
Niobe
Posted - 14 October 2012 : 07:53:39 Hi and welcomed.
Not 100% but I imagine that the OR is correct if they were in your husbands name.
