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T O P I C R E V I E W
Frank
Posted - 04 November 2008 : 13:44:55 As I understand it if you go BR and then you work they expect you to pay an amount over 3 years - so my question(s?) is this:
My wife will not be BR, she will do something to gain income and we intend that I do not to work or claim benefit i.e she will keep us.
So, after a year and I am discharged they will have no claim on my future income from that point? Or am I confused and missing something?
4 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First)
Needafriend
Posted - 04 November 2008 : 16:00:08 Joke accepted! :-)
Good luck for Friday and dont forget to keep asking those questions.
Jo
x
For more info on how i have come through bankruptcy and for links to help, you can read my blog here called:
Posted - 04 November 2008 : 15:23:52 Thanks, I thought that was the case, so looks like a year off for me playing house husband.
Great, I can spend all day watching Austrialian soaps and yabbing with my mates on messenger then slam something in the microwave for tea while I moan how I've been rushed of my feet all day... ;o) (just a joke ladies!)
Frank
Here we go again...
Needafriend
Posted - 04 November 2008 : 13:49:11 What i should have said is after discharge then technically the OR cant impose one.
Jo
x
For more info on how i have come through bankruptcy and for links to help, you can read my blog here called:
