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T O P I C R E V I E W
susan1604
Posted - 11 January 2009 : 23:43:49 Hi I have suffered from Manic Depression for years on and off, usually due to death in the family (my dad in 1993 then my daughter in 2002). My husband always bailed me out of my manic debts. However in 2003 he bailed me out for the last time and asked me to sign (sell my interest to pay off debts)in our home, which I did. However I was still manic and have now over £40,000 in debts. Can I go bankrupt or will the house in the eyes of the bankruptcy laws still jointly belong to me (I still live there but do not contribute to mortgage etc). Thanks
1 L A T E S T R E P L I E S (Newest First)
Reviva UK
Posted - 12 January 2009 : 00:26:05 Hi
is there a clear paper trail for the transaction in 2003 and your continued non contribution to the house?
In theory if it has been done correctly your husband should be OK.
These are however very delicate, and open to interpretation so I would suggest you speak to either the helpline or a site expert to discuss in more depth
Paul Johns Assisted Bankruptcy Specialists Reviva UK
