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Karen.01
Starting Member
4 Posts |
 Posted - 30 October 2011 : 08:17:22
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| I own my own property subject to a mortgage and did so long before meeting my ex partner. He was made bankrupt 2 years ago and will be discharged in a years time. He informs me that when he is discharged, he is going to make a claim on my property as he says he has an interest in it for works done and contributions towards bills. Can he do this, and if he thought he had an interest, should he not of declared this at the time of bankruptcy. |
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Blackie
forum expert
United Kingdom
565 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 12:32:30
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Hi Karen.01
It does seem a bit sneaky and unlawful to be claimimng an interest in the house post bankruptcy. Yes you are right in that if he thought he had an interest in your house, it should have been disclosed to the Official Receiver. However if, in a year's time, it is proven that he does have a financial interest in the house, the Official Receiver will still be able to claim this as an asset of his bankruptcy because he did not disclose the interest.
Is there some specific reason that he was made bankrupt for three years as it is normal for a bankruptcy to last one year.
All the very best.
John Blackadder
Bankruptcy365
For help and advice on the easiest and most effective way to a debt free future, please go to www.bankruptcy365.co.uk. |
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Karen.01
Starting Member
4 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 14:40:59
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I dont know why the bankruptcy was for 3 years or the details of it, but I have an idea that he may have been bankrupt previously. Would that make a difference? I was completely turned over by him and ended up with a mortgage £100k higher than when I met him, so I would like to see him substantiate a claim but your comments are helpful.. Thank you.
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debtinfo
forum expert
2826 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 14:50:37
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| are you sure it is for 3 years, are you in england/wales |
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Karen.01
Starting Member
4 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 15:39:02
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All I know is that he says he is discharged next October and that will be the 3rd year and yes in England.
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Blackie
forum expert
United Kingdom
565 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 16:45:46
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Hi Karen.01
Yes, that is likely. If he has been bankrupt before, there is a very good chance that he could be bankrupt for three years. 2 bankrupts aren't going to be looked at favourably!
Very best of luck.
John Blackadder
Bankruptcy365
For help and advice on the easiest and most effective way to a debt free future, please go to www.bankruptcy365.co.uk. |
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debtinfo
forum expert
2826 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 17:09:56
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No that is not the case, you don't get a 3 year bankruptcy for a second time bankruptcy, its just not in the rules,
Karen have you checked the insolvency register, which lists all current bankrupts with their start dates |
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Daniel Griffiths
Junior Member
United Kingdom
268 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 17:27:07
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| Perhaps he has a three year IPA, and this is what she means |
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debtinfo
forum expert
2826 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 17:30:10
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| Perhaps, or maybe an added restriction order, sometimes people get them confused |
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Karen.01
Starting Member
4 Posts |
Posted - 30 October 2011 : 17:38:31
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Does it make a difference on the amounts involved in the bankruptcy as I think it was in excess of £40k?
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debtinfo
forum expert
2826 Posts |
Posted - 31 October 2011 : 07:15:03
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| no the amount does not make a difference |
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glafy
forum expert
436 Posts |
Posted - 31 October 2011 : 09:47:31
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Hi Karen.01
From what you have posted this does seem very unfair.
As debtifno has posted, try the online insolvency register & do a search to see what information is available. It is very easy & straightforward to use.
I do hope you can sort this out soon.
"Good things come to those who wait".....I'm a patient person but this is taking the Mickey!! |
Edited by - glafy on 31 October 2011 09:48:01 |
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Ex partner making claim on my property after discharge ?
