I have been married 6 years. My husband owns the property with no mortgage and our finances are separate. He also pays all the household bills. I was made redundant last year and have been actively jobseeking but at 59 the chances of finding work are remote as I am due to retire in April next year. I have debts of £40,000 in loans and credit cards which have now stopped paying out on insurance as this only lasted a year. I have the bankruptcy forms but am very worried that this will have repercussions on my husband who would frankly probably divorce me if any of his capital was affected. I have no knowledge of his finances and the house is solely in his name. Is there anyone who can advise me please? Thank you Judy
You have come to the right place. Whilst i cant help you as my knowledge is limited i wanted to say hang on in there and someone who can will be along shortly to help you.
Take care and keep posting. :-)
Jo x
"There is light at the end of the tunnel, if you cant find it get a brighter torch"
For links to help with Bankruptcy, useful web pages and also a run down of my new debt free life, both before and after Bankruptcy, then please visit my blog:
Hi there have been a few similar cases on this forum. The question in your case is when was the house paid for. If it was paid for in full prior to your living there then the property should remain unaffected as you have made no contributions from your income, towards the household costs, whilst a mortgage was in place.
worried about repercussions on my husband
Posted - 15 September 2008 : 16:22:30
