I have just been reading back at some questions asked and wondered about my loans that were previously secured on a house that was susequently repossessed.
The property was sold by the mortgage company at more than 30% less that a valuation we had just had done. There was also a secured loan on the property.
So, my question is, now I have no property for the mortgage and loan to be secured against, and have no other assets, do they now become unsecured loans and are therefore part of the bankruptcy?
Another question - sorry!
Posted - 24 January 2009 : 13:32:34
