I was declared bankrupt over 6 years ago due to the property crash. All the properties including our home, were listed in the bankruptcy. All were taken into possession by the lenders except for 1 buy to let where the lender had appointed and LPA. I was told by the official reciever that once the LPA ended the property would be taken back into possession by the lender and then retrospectively rolled into the bankruptcy. I understood that when it was sold any shortfall would then be back dated and we would be left with no liability. Now I am being told this is not the case. Because we were discharged from bankruptcy if there is any shortfall after the sale of this property,currently in LPA we will be liable all over again. Is this the case?
I'm not sure about this one, I thought it would be taken into account.
Hopefully Viki will come on and advise on this.
The friend in my adversity I shall always cherish most. I can better trust those who helped to relieve the gloom of my dark hours than those who are so ready to enjoy with me the sunshine of my prosperity. – Ulysses S. Grant