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FamilyFather
Starting Member
1 Posts |
 Posted - 27 June 2009 : 17:24:06
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Hello,
I am just filling out my statement of affairs and run into the need for clarification.
Situation:
I have given up the property of a house I owned abroad (irrevocable).
The house has legally no owner at all (possible in that country)
The bank (with which I have a mortgage) can claim ownership seperately and sell it.
Question : Do i have to state this action in the statement of affairs ?
The relevant question is if i haven given AWAY or sold a property and if yes, to whom.
As I have not given it to anybody, is this necessay to tell ? No creditor is harmed, as the bank has the possibility to claim ownership.
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RHB
Senior Member
1159 Posts |
Posted - 28 June 2009 : 07:57:46
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| Personally, I would put it down. It won't make any difference to anytning by the sound of it, but if you don't it could look like you were trying to hide something. |
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Skippy
forum expert
United Kingdom
3290 Posts |
Posted - 28 June 2009 : 18:01:33
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I agree with RHB, I would put it down.
Tomorrow is a mystery, yesterday is history, today is the present, a gift to make the most of.
View my blog at http://skippy13.blogs.bankruptcyhelp.org.uk/
23 IPA payments made, 13 to go - on the home straight! |
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Niobe
Administrator
United Kingdom
4590 Posts |
Posted - 28 June 2009 : 22:36:06
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I agree as well. Far better to be upfront rather than risk the OR finding out about it afterwards and then wondering what else you may have been hiding.
The glimmer gets brighter all the time
Jan
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Staement of affairs: give up = give away ?
